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QUESTION 37
Which CUBE configuration will support H.323 protocol interworking and address hiding?
A. voice services voip h323 interworking
media flow-around
B. voice services h323 to h323 h323 interworking media flow-through
C. voice services voip all-connections h323 to h323 media flow-around
D. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which statement istrue about MGCP?

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QUESTION 45
Your customer wants to implement a SAN with redundant fabrics supporting 600 device ports. Which two Cisco MDS 9000 Family configurations will meet the customer’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. two MDS 9509 switches with redundant Supervisor-1 modules “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
B. two MDS 9509 switches with redundant Supervisor-2 modules
C. two MDS 9513 switches with redundant Supervisor-1 modules
D. two MDS 9513 switches with redundant Supervisor-2 modules

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License in order to operate?

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QUESTION 41
A customer has reported performance degradation in the SAN. The system administrator would like to track read-write I/O and LUN use on several devices. The devices are directly connected to various switches and belong to different VSANs. The administrator wants to gather information for the last 72 hours.
Which of the following Cisco MDS 9000 Series tools is needed to track SCSI I/O and LUN statistics?
A. Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer and PAA
C. Cisco Performance Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Reference the exhibit. A customer has configured an FCIP connection between two sites. The customer issues an extended IP ping command to determine path availability, MTU, and round-trip time. According to the output in the exhibit, which parameter in the extended ping needs adjustment in order to increase the chances of establishing end-to-end connectivity?

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QUESTION 40
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 300 agents
D. 100 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC ExpressConfiguration and Ordering Tool?

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QUESTION 30
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?

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QUESTION 30
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. script refresh
B. script validation
C. debug session
D. Alarm and Trace Configuration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?

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QUESTION 1
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)
A. IPS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ACS
E. WCS
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2
Which three are security services offered through Cisco Router Security? (Choose three.)
A. Trust and Identity
B. Integrated Threat Control
C. Unified Wireless Network Security Solution
D. Secure Connectivity
E. Voice-Messaging Security
F. Endpoint Security
G. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 3
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow acrossthe network?

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QUESTION 45
What does IGMP stand for?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Interior Group Management Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Media Protocol

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
ISDN is short for Integrated Services Digital Network. Under what category of WAN technologies does ISDN belong?
A. Cell-switched
B. Circuit-switched
C. Packet-switched
D. Leased lines

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
As a network engineer, can you tell me accounting management on a network-management system allowsa network manager to perform Which function?

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QUESTION 1
Which three conditions can occur when metering traffic using a dual token bucket traffic policing QoS mechanism on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. conform
B. pass
C. violate
D. exceed
E. burst
F. matched

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What isthe correct formula for determining the CIR?

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QUESTION 24
Q A71
HQ_Router# show ip protocols
Routing Protocol is “eigrp 109 ”
Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set
Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set
Default networks flagged in outgoing updates
Default networks accepted from incoming updates
EIGRP metric weight K1=1, K2=0, K3=1, K4=0, K5=0
EIGRP maximum hopcount 100
EIGRP maximum metric variance 1
Redistributing: eigrp 109
Automatic network summarization is in effect
Automatic address summarization:
20.0.0.0 /8 for FastEthernet0/1
Summarizing with metric 28160

172.30.0.0 /16 for FastEthernet0/0
Summarizing with metric 28160
Maximum path: 4
Routing for Networks:

20.0.0.0
172.30.0.0
192.168.1.0
Routing Information Sources:
Gateway Distance Last Update

20.10.10.2 90 268796
172.30.10.2 90 454765
Distance: internal 90 external 170

How many paths can the EIGRP routing process use to forward packetsfrom HQ_Router to a neighbor router?

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QUESTION 75
Refer to the output from the show running-config command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?
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A. Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B. Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.

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QUESTION 80
How to determine the interface clock rate while a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link by use of a serial DTE interface?
A. It is supplied by the far end router.
B. It is determined by the clock rate command.
C. It is supplied by the CSU/DSU.
D. It is supplied by the Layer 1 bit stream timing.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

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A. The command establishes a static route.

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Exam A QUESTION 1
A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following data:
+—————+—————-+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+—————+—————-+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+—————+—————-+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In a Cisco Nexus platform, what are the results if a service is unable to survive a few subsequent restart attempts?
A. a stateless restart
B. supervisor restart
C. old process is replaced with a new process
D. service modules must be moved to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switches

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/high_availability/ configuration/guide/n1000v_ha_2service.html

QUESTION 2
In the process of creating Cisco TrustSec security associations, what is the role of SGTs?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco product is deployed for content routing purposes?
A. Cisco ACE GSS
B. Cisco ACE appliance
C. Cisco content Engine 500
D. Cisco ACE module

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A customer would like to add Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade environment with minimal disruption. The Brocade switches are using PID-0 mode. Which two features will enable the creation of a Cisco-Brocade heterogeneous fabric without restricting the feature set of either switch? (Choose two.)
A. interop mode 1
B. interop mode 2
C. interop mode 3
D. IVR
E. Port Channels
F. CWDM

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications and that data flows within the required time frames?
A. availability
B. performance
C. functionality
D. manageability
E. scalability
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. dual Wan links to the regional office
C. dual Wan links to another branch office
D. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth consumed by active calls?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the Qos-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies approporiate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. source IP address
F. destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You need to implement QoS for the Certkiller VOIP network. Which three statements are true about the data traffic characteristics of voice traffic? (Select three)
A. Voice packets require TCP for rapid retransmission of dropped packets.
B. Latency is not a concern as long as jitter is kept below 30 ms.
C. Voice packets require a fairly constant bandwidth reserved for voice control traffic as well as for the voice payload.
D. Voice packets do not require a specific type of queuing.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco VPN Client with transparent tunneling, what is true about the IPSec over TCP option?
A. The port number is negotiated automatically.
B. Clients will have access to the secured tunnel and local resources.
C. The port number must match the configuration on the secure gateway.
D. Packets are encapsulated using Protocol 50 (Encapsulating Security Payload, or ESP).
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are a network engineer at pass4sure.com, study the exhibit carefully. What Cisco feature generated the configuration?

A. IOS IPS
B. IOS Firewall
C. AutoSecure
D. EZ VPN
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
The Pass4sure network technician have configured access list on Pass4sure-R router. Please study the exhibit carefully. What function the access list serves?

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