Cisco 642-832 Real Demo, Download Cisco 642-832 PDF Download With Low Price

NEW DUMPS– How to prepare the Cisco 642-832 exam and to 100 percent pass it without any problem? Cisco 642-832 just published the newest Cisco 642-832 Flydumps with all the new updated exam questions and answers.You can get the free new version on Flydumps.com

QUESTION 51
Which condition could cause a %SPANTREE-2-CHNL_MISCFG log message to be generated by a switch?
A. The switch has detected an inconsistency between two of its physical ports that are members of an EtherChannel.
B. The switch has detected a misconfiguration of the spanning-tree channel.
C. The switch has detected an attempt of a neighboring switch to promote itself to the designated switch on an EtherChannel link.
D. The switch has detected that the neighboring switch is not configured to bundle a number of physical interfaces in an EtherChannel, while this switch is configured to bundle the links.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which two of the following are differences between routers and multilayer switches?
A. Routers support a wider variety of media than multilayer switches.
B. Routers can achieve higher throughput than multilayer switches.
C. Routers are less energy efficient than switches.
D. Routers support a wider range of features than multilayer switches.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which of the following commands can be used on multilayer switches, but not on routers to troubleshoot Layer 3 forwarding problems?
A. show ip cef
B. show ip route
C. show adjacency
D. show platform
E. None of these options are correct. All commands necessary to troubleshoot Layer 3 forwarding are available on both routers and multilayer switches.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
SVIs and routed ports are both capable of running DTP. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which two of the following conditions need to be met for an SVI to be up?
A. The VLAN corresponding to the SVI must exist in the VLAN database of the switch.
B. There must be at least one access port assigned to the VLAN corresponding to the SVI.
C. There must be at least one interface in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN corresponding to the SVI.
D. The VLAN corresponding to the SVI must have been advertised by VTP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Based on the configurations shown in Figure 4-27, which router do you predict will be the active router for standby group 1 and for which reason?
Figure 4-27. Which Router Will Be the Active Router for Standby Group 1? [View full size image]

A. Router R1, because it has the lowest IP address.
B. Router R2, because it has the highest IP address.
C. Router R1, because it has the highest priority.
D. Router R2, because it has the highest priority, the default priority of 200.
E. There is not enough information to answer the question. It will depend on the order in which the routers are enabled.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Preempt is not enabled. Either of the router can become active.
QUESTION 57
Based on the output of the commands displayed in Figure 4-28, which router is the active router for standby group 1 and for what reason?
Figure 4-28. Which Router Is the Active Router for Standby Group 1?

A. Router R1, because it has the lowest IP address
B. Router R2, because it has the highest IP address
C. Router R1, because it has the highest priority
D. Router R2, because it has the lowest priority
E. Router R1, because it was enabled first
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols supports multiple active forwarding gateways per group?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP C. GLBP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols is based on an IETF standard?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
For which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols is preemption the default behavior?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which two of the following items are recorded in the routing table for a prefix?
A. VLAN
B. Next-hop IP address
C. Egress interface
D. Ingress interface
E. Next-hop MAC address
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
After consulting the routing table to route a packet, which other data structure on a router needs to be consulted to encapsulate the packet in an Ethernet frame (assuming the packet is not CEF switched)?
A. MAC address table
B. Link-state database
C. Topology table
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache
E. None of the answers are correct. All information necessary to route a packet and encapsulate it is contained in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
For a route that has a point-to-point interface as the egress interface, a next-hop IP address is not mandatory.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which two of the following data structures contain similar information when using CEF? (Choose two.)
A. The routing table and the FIB.
B. The routing table and the adjacency table contain similar information.
C. The FIB and the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mapping tables, such as the ARP cache contain similar information.
D. The adjacency table and the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mapping tables, such as the ARP cache.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Figure 5-8 shows an IP packet that is in transit from Host A to Host B as it traverses the Ethernet LAN between Router E and host B. Which two addresses are contained in the two fields marked with? in the figure?
Figure 5-8. An IP Packet from Host A to Host B in Transit

A. IP address 10.1.4.1 and MAC address of Host B
B. IP address 10.1.4.1 and MAC address of Router E (Fa0)
C. IP address 10.1.4.2 and MAC address of Host B
D. IP address 10.1.1.1 and MAC address of Host A
E. IP address 10.1.1.1 and MAC address of Router E (Fa1)
F. IP address 10.1.4.1 and MAC address of Host A
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which Cisco IOS command displays the exact adjacency used to forward a packet from a specific source IP address to a specific destination IP address on a router that is using CEF?
A. show ip cef exact-route source destination
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
show ip cef exact-route source destination

QUESTION 67

Which Cisco IOS command displays the full Layer 2 header that will be used to forward frames to an adjacency on a router that is using CEF?
A. show adjacency detail
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: show adjacency detail
QUESTION 68
Which three of the following data structures does EIGRP use?
A. Link-state database
B. Topology table
C. ARP cache
D. Interface table
E. Adjacency table
F. Neighbor table
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
The EIGRP topology table contains all the routes that were received from all EIGRP routers in the autonomous system.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which of the following Cisco IOS commands displays the transmission and reception of EIGRP packets such as hellos, updates, queries, and replies?
A. debug ip eigrp packets
B. debug ip eigrp
C. debug eigrp packets
D. debug eigrp updates
E. debug eigrp adj
F. debug ip eigrp neighbor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
When you issue the show ip eigrp interfaces command on a router, it lists interface FastEthernet 0/1, but it does not list interface FastEthernet 0/0. Which two of the following statements could be a possible explanation for the absence of interface FastEthernet 0/0?
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
B. EIGRP is not enabled on the router.
C. The command ip eigrp as-number is not configured on interface FastEthernet 0/0.
D. None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.
E. There are no active EIGRP neighbors on interface FastEthernet 0/0.
F. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is not a feasible successor.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Based on the command output shown in Example 5-33, which route is the successor?
Example 5-33. Which EIGRP Path to 10.1.220.1/32 Is Better?

A. The route via 10.1.194.1, because it has the lowest hop count.
B. The route via 10.1.163.130, because a Fast Ethernet interface has a higher bandwidth than a Serial interface.
C. The route via 10.1.163, because its feasible distance (40642560) is better than the composite feasible distance (40640000).
D. The route via 10.1.194.1, because its metric (40640000) is better than the metric via 1.163.1 (40642560).
E. The route via 10.1.194.1, because its metric (128256) is better than the metric via 10.1.163.1 (40640000)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Which three of the following data structures does the OSPF protocol use?
A. Link-state database
B. Topology table
C. ARP cache
D. Interface table
E. Adjacency table
F. Neighbor table
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Figure 5-9 displays an OSPF network consisting of three areas. No redistribution or summarization has been configured, and each link represents a single subnet. How many type 1 and type 2 LSAs are contained in the OSPF link-state database on router A?
Figure 5-9. How Many LSA Type 1 and 2 Are Stored in Router A?

A. Two type 1 LSAs and two type 2 LSAs
B. Five type 1 LSAs and five type 2 LSAs
C. One type 1 LSA and one type 2 LSA
D. Two type 1 LSAs and one type 2 LSA
E. Two type 1 LSAs and five type 2 LSAs
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which three of the following parameters need to match in the Hello packets for two OSPF routers to become neighbors?
A. Hello and dead timer
B. Autonomous system number
C. Area number
D. Subnet mask on a point-to-point link
E. Area type
F. Router type
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Figure 5-10 displays an OSPF network consisting of three areas. No redistribution or summarization has been configured and each link represents a single subnet. How many type 3 LSAs are contained in the OSPF link-state database on Router D?
Figure 5-10. How Many Type 3 LSAs Are Stored in Router D?

A. 5 type-3 LSA
B. 7 type-3 LSA
C. 9 type-3 LSA
D. 11 type-3 LSA
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which four of the following OSPF neighbor states are transitory states?
A. Init
B. 2-way
C. Exstart
D. Exchange
E. Loading
F. Full
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
What Cisco IOS debug command for OSPF displays events related to the adjacency building process and allows you to see a neighbor relationship transition from one state to the next?
A. debug ip ospf adj
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of the following Cisco IOS commands can be used to display the content of the OSPF link-state database?
A. show ip ospf lsdb
B. show ip ospf link-states
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip route ospf
E. None of the answers are correct. Only the results of the shortest path first (SPF) calculation can be displayed, not the content of the database itself.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
When you issue the show ip ospf interface command on a router, it lists interface FastEthernet 0/1, but it does not list interface FastEthernet 0/0. Which of the following statements could be a possible explanation for the absence of interface FastEthernet 0/0?
A. Interface Fast Ethernet 0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
B. OSPF is not enabled on the router.
C. None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.
D. There are no active OSPF neighbors on interface FastEthernet 0/0.
E. The router is not a designated router for interface FastEthernet 0/0.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which type of OSPF LSA is displayed in the output of Example 5-34?
Example 5-34. Verifying OSPF LSAs
CRO1# show ip ospf database summary 10.1.152.0 OSPF Router with ID (10.1.220.1) (Process ID 100) Summary Net Link States (Area 0) Routing Bit Set on this LSA LS age: 201 Options: (No TOS-capability, DC, Upward) LS Type: Summary Links(Network) Link State ID: 10.1.152.0 (summary Network Number) Advertising Router: 10.1.220.252 LS Seq Number: 80000001 Checksum: 0x1C97 Length: 28 Network Mask: /24 TOS: 0 Metric: 1
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Look for LS Type: Summary Links(Network)

QUESTION 82
How does a router determine which route to install in the routing table if two routes for the same prefix from different routing protocols are available?
A. It compares the metrics of the two protocols and installs the route with the lowest metric.
B. It compares the administrative distance of the two protocols and installs the route with the lowest administrative distance.
C. It converts the metric of each of the routing protocols to the universal route metric (URM) and then installs the route with the lowest URM.
D. It installs both routes in the routing table and load balances the traffic across the two paths.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which two of the following routing protocols have their default seed metric for redistribution set to infinity or unreachable?
A. RIP
B. IS-IS
C. OSPF

D. EIGRP
E. BGP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
What Cisco IOS debug command displays routes being installed or removed from the routing table in real time?
A. debug ip routing
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which two of the following information elements are exchanged by EIGRP for an external route that was redistributed from OSPF?
A. Originating OSPF area number
B. EIGRP router ID of the redistributing router
C. OSPF router ID of the originating router
D. Source routing protocol (OSPF)
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which two of the following data structures does Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) use?
A. Link-state database
B. Topology table
C. BGP table
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache
E. Interface table
F. Adjacency table
G. Neighbor table
Correct Answer: CG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
The BGP table on a router contains all the routes that were received from all its BGP peers. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
BGP neighbors are discovered by use of a hello protocol. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which two of the following reasons could cause the establishment of a BGP session to fail?
A. The source IP address used by the router that initiates the session does not match the configured IP address on the receiving router.
B. The TCP source port used by the router that initiates the session is not set to 179.
C. The autonomous system number of the router that initiates the session does not match the configured autonomous system number for the peer router on the receiving router.
D. The BGP keepalive and hold timer of the peers do not match.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Which of the following Cisco IOS commands displays the subsequent phases of establishing a BGP peering relationship?
A. debug ip bgp
B. debug ip bgp adj
C. debug ip bgp peer
D. debug ip bgp updates
E. debug ip bgp events
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
The output of the show ip bgp summary command displays Active as the state of a neighbor. What does this mean?
A. The peering session has been established and the routers are actively exchanging routes.
B. BGP has lost the best route in the BGP table for a prefix and is attempting to find a backup route via a query and reply process.
C. BGP is attempting to establish a TCP session to the neighbor, but has not succeeded yet.
D. This is the state that a peering relationship is in when the router sees its own router ID listed in the active peer list in the hello packets received from that peer.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which of the following is not a main NAT category?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Controlled NAT
D. NAT overloading
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which of the following is not an advantage of NAT?
A. Conserves private IP addresses
B. Hides the actual address of internal hosts and services
C. Increases flexibility when connecting to Internet
D. Eliminates address renumbering as the network changes from one ISP to another
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which of the following are disadvantages of NAT? (Choose three.)
A. Translation introduces processing delays.
B. Loss of end-to-end IP reachability.
C. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.
D. Hides the address of the internal hosts.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which two of the following are NAT-sensitive protocols?
A. IPsec
B. Telnet
C. SMTP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
For outbound traffic, address translation occurs before output access lists are evaluated. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which of the following correctly describes the effect of debug condition interface serial 0/0?
A. debug output is generated only when interface serial 0/0 goes down.
B. debug output is generated only when interface serial 0/0 goes up.
C. debug output is generated when interface serial 0/0 goes up or down.
D. debug output will only be limited to interface serial 0/0.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which of the following commands displays the NAT table content?
A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
C. show ip nat
D. show ip nat pool
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which of the following commands configures a router interface with the relay agent functionality?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip relay-agent
C. ip server-address
D. ip helper-server
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
What is the proper order of DHCP messages going between a client and a server?
A. DHCP offer, DHCP discover, DHCP request, DHCP ack
B. DHCP discover, DHCP request, DHCP offer, DHCP ack
C. DHCP discover, DHCP offer, DHCP request, DHCP ack
D. DHCP request, DHCP discover, DHCP offer, DHCP ack
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D O R A

Flydumps is ready to provide Cisco 642-832 candidates with Cisco 642-832 training materials which can be very much helpful for getting Cisco 642-832 certification, which means that candidates.Cisco 642-832 can easily get access to the services of Cisco 642-832 for practice exam,which will assure them 100% Cisco 642-832 success rate.Though Cisco 642-832 tests are not easy at all, but they do not make Cisco 642-832 things complicated.