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QUESTION 30
What service is provided by CSA Profiler?
A. Profiler analyzes applications to help in generating useful policies.
B. Profiler monitors and logs security events that occur on CSA protected hosts.
C. Profiler provides a COM component utility that installs with each CSA.
D. Profiler configures agent kits that are deployed on CSA protected hosts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
According to SAFE worm mitigation, what happens during the quarantine phase of the worm mitigation?
A. All uninfected systems are patched with the appropriate vendor patch for the vulnerability.
B. The spread of a worm infection is limited to areas of the network that are already affected.
C. An actively infected system is disinfected of the worm.
D. Infected machines are identified, contained, and blocked.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which of the following is not a SAFE guideline to proactively mitigate Code Red attacks?
A. host intrusion prevention system
B. network-based application recognition
C. antivirus
D. access control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is true about CSA?
A. CSA is a signature-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer true positives than NIDS.
B. CSA is a behavior-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer false positives than NIDS.
C. CSA is signature-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer true negatives than NIDS.
D. CSA is a behavior-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer false negatives than NIDS.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
According to SAFE implementation of IPSec VPN, what are key VPN devices in a medium network? (Select three.)
A. VPN router
B. VPN firewall
C. interior firewall
D. VPN Concentrator
E. distribution router
F. NIDS appliance

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
According to SAFE implementation of IPSec VPN, what is the function of a VPN router in a large network remote access and VPN module?
A. Authenticates individual remote users using XAUTH and terminates their IPSec tunnels.
B. Tracks the availability of remote site networks across the VPN routers.
C. Authenticates trusted remote sites and provides connectivity using GRE/IPSec tunnels.
D. Authenticates trusted remote sites and provides stateful filtering of remote site traffic.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
How are application layer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
In the SAFE SMR midsize network design, which module does dial-in traffic terminate?
A. campus module
B. WAN module
C. ISP edge module
D. corporate Internet module
E. PSTN module
F. frame/ATM module

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
What are the features that Direct Sequencing networks offer to transmit data? Choose three.
A. Direct Sequencing offers 11 overlapping channels.
B. Direct Sequencing offers 13 overlapping channels.
C. Direct Sequencing uses 2.4 GHz RF spectrum.
D. Direct Sequencing uses 5 GHz RF spectrum.
E. Direct Sequencing provides Complementary Code Keying (CCK) to support higher data rates.
F. Direct Sequencing provides Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) to support higher data rates.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
lab Paramteter Value Policy priority number 20 encryption algorithm 3des hash algorithm md5 authentication method pre-share Diffle-Hellman group Identifler 2 SA lifetime 83000 Pre-shared Key mycisco Transform Set Name ciscoset ISAKMP Identify Type IP address PIX Firewall Outside Interface Add 192.168.1.2 Branch Office Outside Interface Add 172.26.26.101 Crypto Map Name myamp Netmask 255.255.255.0
IPsec paramters are not configured,should not be configured and consequently the tunnel will not be established
The router and PIX have been configured with the following specifications: Branch Office Router Name:Wimberley E0/0: 10.2.1.1/24 E0/1: 172.26.26.101/24 Enable Password:cisco
Corporate Office PIX Name: Blanco E0: 192.168.1.2/24 E1: 10.2.1.1/24
Enable Password:cisco
Branch PC(configure router)
Wimberley#conf t Wimberley(config)#crypto isa policy 20 Wimberley(config-isakmp)#enc 3des Wimberley(config-isakmp)#au pre-share Wimberley(config-isakmp)#hash md5 Wimberley(config-isakmp)#group 2 Wimberley(config-isakmp)#lifetime 83000 Wimberley(config-isakmp)#exit Wimberley(config)#crypto isa key mycisco address 192.168.1.2 Wimberley(config)#exit
Corporate pc(configure PIX)
Blanco(config)#crypto isakmp policy 20 enc 3des Blanco(config)#crypto isakmp policy 20 au pre-share Blanco(config)#crypto isakmp policy 20 hash md5 Blanco(config)#crypto isakmp policy 20 group 2 Blanco(config)#crypto isakmp policy 20 lifetime 83000
Blanco(config)#crypto isa key mycisco address 172.26.26.101

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on source address
D. provides session state information based on destination address
E. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
After being authenticated, which actions are performed on dial-in access users in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. traffic is sent through a Layer 3 switch
B. users are provided with IP addresses from an IP pool
C. CHAP is used to authenticate the user
D. traffic is sent through a router

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
How are trust exploitation attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midize network design corporate Internet module?
A. OS and IDS detection
B. restrictive filtering and host IDS
C. restrictive trust model and private VLANs
D. IDS at the host and network levels
E. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which two devices in the SAFE SMR small network campus module should have HIDS installed? Choose two.
A. Layer 2 switches
B. firewalls
C. management hosts
D. desktop workstations
E. corporate servers
F. lab workstations

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which are key devices in the SAFE VoIP large network campus server module? Choose three.
A. layer 2 switch
B. call-processing manager
C. NIDS appliance
D. proxy server
E. IP phones
F. stateful firewall

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
How are virus and Trojan Horse attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Why are all providers of Internet connectivity urged to implement the filtering described in RFC 2827?
A. to prohibit attackers from using source addresses that reside within a range of legitimately advertised prefixes
B. to prohibit attackers from using forged source addresses that do not reside within a range of legitimately advertised prefixes
C. to filter Java applications that come from a source that is not trusted
D. to stop internal users from reaching web sites that violate the established security policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which type of attack is characterized by exploitation of well-known weaknesses, use of ports that are allowed through a firewall, and can never be completely eliminated?
A. network reconnaissance
B. application layer
C. man-in-the-middle
D. trust exploitation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48
Which commands are used for basic filtering in the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose two.
A. access-group
B. ip inspect-name
C. ip route
D. access-list

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
What options can be chosen for TCP session reassembly on the IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? Choose two.
A. IP reassembly
B. no reassembly
C. loose reassembly
D. total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
According to SAFE IPSec VPN, which of these are recommended design guidelines for maintaining high availability? (Select three.)
A. When using VPN routers at the headend, use IKE keepalives for high availability.
B. When using VPN Concentrators or VPN firewalls at the headend, use IKE keepalives for high availability.
C. Regardless of the high-availability mechanism chosen, a headend device should not be deployed in a configuration that results in CPU utilization higher than 50 percent after failure.
D. Regardless of the high-availability mechanism chosen, a headend device should not be deployed in a configuration that results in CPU utilization higher than 75 percent after failure.
E. Cisco recommends running IKE keepalives in combination with routing protocols for resilience to assist in keeping the state current.
F. Cisco does not recommend running IKE keepalives in combination with routing protocols for resilience to assist in keeping the state current.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. WAN router
B. VPN Concentrator
C. firewalls
D. NIDS host
E. corporate servers
F. layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the NIDS primary function in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. provide connectivity to the campus module
B. provide connectivity to the WAN module
C. provide connectivity to the LAN module
D. provides detection of attacks on ports that the firewall is configured to permit
E. provide the demarcation point between the ISP and the medium network
F. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What three commands are used for RFC 1918 and RFC 2827 filtering on the ISP router in the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose three.
A. ip route 1918
B. access-list
C. access-group
D. enable rfc 1918 filtering
E. rate-limit
F. enable rfc 2827 filtering

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
What services does EAP provide?
A. EAP provides wireless gateway and complementary code keying.
B. EAP provides centralized authentication and dynamic key distribution.
C. EAP provides open authentication and shared key distribution.
D. EAP provides message integrity check and wireless domain service.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which two general IP spoofing techniques does a hacker use? Choose two.
A. an IP address within the range of trusted IP addresses
B. an unknown IP address which cannot be traced
C. an RFC 1918 address
D. an authorized external IP address that is trusted

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which three key devices are in the SAFE SMR small network corporate Internet module? Choose three.
A. servers
B. VPN concentrators
C. Layer 3 switches
D. firewalls
E. Layer 2 switches
F. NIDS

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which is a key server found in SAFE Enterprise network design edge corporate internet module?
A. database server
B. application server
C. URL filtering server
D. proxy server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
In the SAFE SMR midsize network design, access list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0
0.255.255.255 any is an example of what kind of filtering?
A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 2728
C. RFC 2827
D. RFC 1920

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. port redirection
B. application layer attacks
C. IP Spoofing
D. packet sniffers
E. virus and Trojan Horse applications
F. password attacks

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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