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QUESTION 1
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
A. the segmenting of collision domains
B. a limited corporate budget
C. the use of multivendor equipment
D. security between departments
E. video streaming on the LAN
F. the segmenting of broadcast domains
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 2
Which two methods are used to enhance VPN performance on Cisco ISRs? (Choose two.)
A. SSL Acceleration Network Module
B. VPN Shared Port Adapter
C. VPN Acceleration Module
D. high-performance VPN encryption AIM
E. VPN Service Adapter
F. built-in hardware-based encryption acceleration
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 3
Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites? (Choose three.)
A. high expense of transmitting data
B. important traffic flows
C. excessive packet transmission rate
D. uncertain reliability
E. high link utilization
F. lack of speed
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 4
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose three.)
A. easy guidelines in case of failure
B. estimated rollback time in case of failure
C. simple implementation guidelines
D. estimated implementation time
E. design document references
F. step description
Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 5
The topology map in the draft design document should cover which two layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. session
B. data link
C. transport
D. application
E. physical
F. network
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 6
In a Cisco CatOS switch, what is the recommended practice when configuring switch-to-switch intercommunications to carry multiple VLANs for Dynamic Trunk Protocol?
A. auto to auto_negotiate
B. disable Dynamic Trunk Protocol when operating in the distribution layer
C. auto to auto_no_negotiate
D. desirable to desirable_no_negotiate
E. on to on_negotiate
F. desirable to desirable_negotiate
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
What are the two most likely driving forces motivating businesses to integrate voice and data into converged networks? (Choose two.)
A. Voice networks cannot carry data unless the PRI circuits aggregate the BRI circuits.
B. Their PSTNs cannot deploy features quickly enough.
C. Data, voice, and video cannot converge on their current PSTN structures.
D. Voice has become the primary traffic on networks.
E. WAN costs can be reduced by migrating to converged networks.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
A lightweight access point is added to a working network. Which sequence will it use to associate itself with a wireless LAN controller?
A. primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity, master
B. primary, secondary, tertiary, master, greatest AP capacity
C. master, primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity
D. greatest AP capacity, primary, secondary, tertiary, master
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which three mechanisms are required to deploy QoS on an IP WAN? (Choose three.)
A. queuing and scheduling
B. Call Admission Control
C. traffic shaping
D. link efficiency techniques
E. traffic classification
F. bandwidth provisioning
Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 10

Which two statements best describe the implementation of Overlay VPN connectivity for remote access in the Enterprise Edge WAN module? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth is provisioned on a site-to-site basis.
B. It uses dedicated point-to-point links.
C. Optimum routing between customer sites requires a full mesh of virtual circuits.
D. It must use Layer 2 labels to forward packets
E. The ISP actively participates in customer routing.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 11
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module.
B. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm.
C. Limit the number of incoming connections to the E-Commerce module.
D. Use private and public key encryption.
E. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs).

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 12
After a period of rapid growth, FloCzar Boats is seeking better network management tools.
Managers have developed this needs list:
Move from static to dynamic device information.
Gain information to assist in long-term trend analysis.
Concentrate on Layer 4 monitoring.
Which management protocol will most help FloCzar achieve its goals?

A. RMON2
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. RMON
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a customer’s network in order to discover opportunities for network improvement?

A. Operate
B. Implement
C. Plan
D. Design
E. Prepare
F. Design Assessment

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A very large organization has received its IPv6 address range from its Internet Service Provider and intends to use only IPv6 addresses internally. Employees will access the Internet using port address translation. What is a requirement for their DNS servers?
A. There are no changes required to their DNS servers.
B. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses.
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses.
D. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses.
E. They no longer need DNS servers.
F. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 15
Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down network design process has over the bottom-up network design process? (Choose two.)
A. utilizes previous experience
B. identifies appropriate technologies first
C. is able to provide the big picture
D. takes less time to design a network
E. provides a design for current and future development
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
B. Leading zeros are required.
C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 17
Which three security measures can be used to mitigate DoS attacks that are directed at exposed hosts within the E-Commerce module? (Choose three.)
A. Use NIDSs and HIPSs to detect signs of attack and to identify potentially successful breaches.
B. Partition the exposed hosts into a separate LAN or VLAN.
C. Use LAN switch VTP pruning to separate hosts on the same segment.
D. Use a VPN concentrator (IPSec) to protect and verify each connection to the exposed host or hosts.
E. Use firewalls to block all unnecessary connections to the exposed hosts.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which technology can ensure data confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication across a public IP network?
A. VSANs
B. VPDNs
C. VLANs
D. GRE
E. IPsec
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Which statement best describes Call Admission Control?
A. It extends QoS capabilities to protect voice from excessive data traffic.
B. It protects voice from voice.
C. It provides endpoint registration control.
D. It provides endpoint bandwidth control.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A customer wishes to implement VoIP using centralized call-processing. In addition, the customer wishes to ice quality and good bandwidth utilization. Which codec would you suggest?
A. G.711
B. G.729
C. G.726
D. G.723.1
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. server statistics
B. network audit
C. traffic analysis
D. visual inventory
E. staff input

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 22
Which of the following Cisco router services performs network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing network?
A. NetMon
B. MRTG
C. SNMP MIB compiler
D. NetFlow
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution
layer?
A. #1
B. #3
C. #4
D. #2

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-down network design plan?
A. provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
B. facilitates design based on previous experience
C. is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
D. allows quick responses to design requests
E. incorporates customer organizational requirements
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Lightweight access points are being deployed in remote locations where others are already operational. The new access points are in a separate IP subnet from the wireless controller. OTAP has not been enabled at any locations. Which two methods can the AP use to locate a wireless controller? (Choose two.)
A. NV-RAM IP address
B. master
C. primary, secondary, tertiary
D. DHCP
E. local subnet broadcast
F. DNS
Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 26
Which Cisco security solution can quarantine and prevent non-compliant end stations from accessing the network until they achieve security policy compliance?
A. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
B. Adaptive Security Appliance
C. Network Admission Control
D. Network Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Secure Connectivity
F. Access Control Server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
A network design includes private addressing, but there is also a need for two or three network devices to
each be assigned a unique public address so they can be accessed from the Internet.
Which technique will satisfy this requirement?

A. Static NAT
B. VPN tunneling
C. Dynamic NAT
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
A Cisco security mechanism has the following attributes: it is a sensor appliance it searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic it is a “purpose-built device” it is installed passively it introduces no delay or overhead Which Cisco security mechanism is this?
A. NIDS
B. PIX
C. IKE
D. HIPS
E. HMAC
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. RIPv2
D. RIPv1
E. IGRP
F. IS-IS

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Enterprise Edge WAN module? (Choose three.)
A. ring
B. full mesh
C. partial mesh
D. collapsed core
E. star
F. core
G. edge
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Which statement accurately describes one difference between a small office and medium office topology?
A. Medium offices commonly use integrated route and switching platforms.
B. Medium offices use integrated 10/100/1000 interfaces as Layer 2 trunks.
C. Medium offices use external access switches to support LAN connectivity.
D. Small offices commonly use Rapid PVST+ for Layer 3 deployments.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design requirements:
at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth network runs of up to 40km no concern for transmission medium cost
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this customer?
A. unshielded twisted pair
B. shielded twisted pair
C. single-mode fiber
D. wireless
E. multimode fiber
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/16
B. 192.168.168.0/21
C. 192.168.0.0/24
D. 192.168.171.128/3
E. 192.168.175.0/3
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which two of the following statements represent a preferred wireless LWAPP implementation? (Choose two.)
A. verify open ports for: Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBBBB Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and UDP 12223
B. use of Layer 3 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 2 LWAPP
C. use of Layer 2 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 3 LWAPP
D. verify open ports for: Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBABA Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and TCP 12223
E. verify open ports for: Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxABAB Layer 3 LWAPP on TCP 12222 and TCP 12223
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.)
A. the monitoring of processor time on network devices
B. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic
C. the decoding and analyzing of packets
D. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network
E. the monitoring of user network utilization
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 36
What is the benefit of deploying a gatekeeper in an H.323 IP telephony network?
A. provides spatial redundancy through the use of HSRP
B. provides load balancing via GUP when alternate gatekeepers are deployed
C. reduces configuration complexity by centralizing the dial plan
D. increases redundancy by allowing each gateway to maintain a copy of the dial plan
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
has a low initial cost provides low-to-medium BW has medium-to-high latency and jitter Which technology would you suggest?
A. ISDN
B. X.25
C. analog modem
D. DSL
E. wireless
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which Cisco security solution offers protection against “day zero” attacks?
A. Cisco IOS IPS
B. Cisco IOS Firewall
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
E. Cisco Security Agent
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. intra-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. inter-office
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints?
A. RTCP
B. H.245
C. H.225
D. RAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 42
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 43
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 44
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 45
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47

Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 48
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize routing table size.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office
from the Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)
A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN
Correct Answer: AC Exam E

QUESTION 1
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation.
The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients.
The layer represents how resources exist across the network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.

Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?

A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 3
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 5
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 10
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs?(Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes:
support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN
Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, which will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint, which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?
A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 14
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation of these routers? (Choose two.)

A. software revisions
B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 16
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.
E. Order the equipment.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network. Which two strategies can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration? (Choose two)
A. translate one protocol into the other
B. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
C. encapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets
D. bridge between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks
E. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
A network is being designed to meet the requirements listed.
Within the enterprise network:
All routers are Cisco 3800 Series routers running the latest Cisco IOS release.

The fastest convergence time possible is required.
Unequal cost load-balancing is required.
For Internet connections:
A single link is used to connect to a single ISP.
Which two routing protocols should be used?(Choose two.)

A. Use Internal BGP as the IGP within the enterprise.
B. Use Static (Default) routing between the enterprise and the ISP.
C. Use OSPF as the IGP within the enterprise.
D. Use EIGRP as the IGP within the enterprise.
E. Use EIGRP between the enterprise and the ISP.
F. Use External BGP between the enterprise and the ISP.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 19
Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
B. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
C. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
F. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.

Correct Answer: EF QUESTION 20
For which technology is IPsec required for a site-to-site enterprise WAN/MAN architecture?
A. self-deployed MPLS
B. ATM
C. Frame Relay
D. SP MPLS VPN
E. ISP Service

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?

A. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
B. QoS should be performed only in the core.
C. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best performance for all time-critical applications.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What does Cisco recommend as the foundation of any deployed security solution?
A. Customer needs
B. Security audit
C. Service-level agreement
D. Corporate security policy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
What is the administrative distance of eBGP routes?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 20
D. 110
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which name is for the Cisco product that provides centralized, policy-based security management?
A. IDS
B. Out-of-band management
C. AAA
D. CSPM
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which statement represents a likely starting point for planning network changes?
A. Protocol assessment
B. Determining the design requirements
C. Determining the business needs
D. Determining the application requirements
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What does IGMP stand for?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Interior Group Management Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Media Protocol
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
ISDN is short for Integrated Services Digital Network. Under what category of WAN technologies does ISDN belong?
A. Cell-switched
B. Circuit-switched
C. Packet-switched
D. Leased lines
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28

As a network engineer, can you tell me accounting management on a network-management system allows a network manager to perform which function?
A. Assess the network’s effectiveness and throughput
B. Charge back to users for network resources
C. Performance management
D. Identify problem areas in the network
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which address type is 225.10.1.1?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
What is the length of the key used with Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)?
A. 64 bits
B. 168 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 56 bits

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
A wireless LAN or WLAN is a wireless local area network, which is the linking of two or more computers or devices without using wires. How are wireless LANs identified?
A. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. IP network
D. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) key

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Observe the following options, what is the hierarchy for IPv6 aggregatable addresses?
A. Global, site, loop
B. Multicast, anycast, unicast
C. Public, site, interface
D. Internet, site, interface

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which IGP protocol is a common choice to EIGRP and OSPF as a routing protocol for large networks?
A. RIPv2
B. IS-IS
C. IGRP
D. OSPFv2

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
Which type of routing protocol will be used when connecting to an Internet service provider?
A. Classless routing protocol
B. Exterior gateway protocol
C. Interior gateway protocol
D. Classful routing protocol

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Which routing protocol is classful?
A. Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) and OSPF
B. Routing Information Protocol Version 1 (RIPv1) and RIPv2
C. IGRP and RIPv1
D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Which attack type would you expect on segments that have many servers for some well-known applications?
A. Trojan horses
B. DoS attacks
C. Application-layer attacks
D. Password attacks

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Which types of communicating devices compose RMON architecture ?(choose two)
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Management station
D. Monitor

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 39
Which FCAPS function includes finding network problems that reduce availability?
A. Security management
B. Accounting management
C. Fault management
D. Performance management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
What is the name of the organization that is in charge of creating the FCAPS architecture?
A. ISP
B. IOS
C. ITU-T
D. IEEE
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Define some of the activities, tools, and techniques used in today’s network-design process.(Choose three.)
A. Analyzing network traffic
B. Simulation of network traffic
C. Network auditing
D. Filtering incoming network traffic
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 42
Which is the remote monitoring agent in the RMON architecture called?
A. Tree
B. Station
C. Agent
D. Probe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which type of DSL does residential service use?
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. ADSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
Which item is not a part of the process recommended by Cisco for WAN designs?
A. Characterize the existing network.
B. Analyze customer requirements.
C. Configure deployed services.
D. Design the new WAN topology.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
In IS-IS networks, which routers does the backup designated router (BDR) form adjacencies to?
A. Only to the DR.
B. The BDR only becomes adjacent when the DR is down.
C. To all routers.
D. There is no BDR in IS-IS.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
What does Compressed Real-Time Transport Protocol (CRTP) compress ?
A. RTP, TCP, and IP headers
B. RTP headers
C. RTP, User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and IP headers
D. Real-Time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP) headers

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
Which mechanism will be often used by service providers to define their service offerings and to differentiate their services from their competitors?
A. SLM
B. SLA
C. SLC
D. SAA
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
What is the virtual information store used within SNMP called?
A. MIB
B. RMON
C. Protocol data unit (PDU)
D. Abstract Syntax Notation One (ASN.1)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which standard language will be used by SNMP to define the device information to be stored?
A. SNMPv4
B. ASN.1
C. MIBs
D. Agents

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
Which WAN scenario might be appropriate for queuing solutions?
A. A newly implemented WAN connection has yet to demonstrate sufficient WAN statistics for congestion-level tracking.
B. A WAN connection features consistent congestion problems, and data transfers often suffer.
C. A WAN connection is rarely congested, and data transfers never suffer.
D. A WAN connection features occasional periods of congestion, and data transfers have occasionally suffered as a result.
Correct Answer: D Exam F
QUESTION 1
Your boss is interested in a wireless WAN solution which provides higher bandwidth than point-to-multipoint (p2mp) wireless. Which description is correct?
A. Service providers cannot install point-to-point (p2p) links from a p2mp hub.
B. P2p wireless connections can provide up to 44 Mbps raw bandwidth.
C. P2p links tend to be slower than p2mp.
D. P2mp wireless connections can provide up to 1.544 Mbps raw bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Examine the following protocols, which two are used for IP Security?
A. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)(EIGRP)
B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
D. Virtual Private Dial-Up Network (VPDN) and GRE

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is SNMP?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol
B. Simple Network Monitoring Protocol
C. Sampling Network Management Process
D. Simple Network Maintenance Procedure

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
When building Global network businesses , which three principles should be used?
A. Customer focus, continuous standardization, and core versus context
B. Customer focus, centralization, and core versus context
C. Customer focus, decentralization, and core versus edge
D. Customer focus, decentralization, and core versus context

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
For the following items, which component of the CiscoWorks product allows a network administrator to define and manage service levels?
A. Service assurance agent (SAA)
B. Service level manager (SLM)
C. Collection Manager (CM)
D. Service level agreement (SLA)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which codec does Cisco recommend for WAN links?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.728
D. G.729

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
NAT-PT is an IPv6-IPv4 translation mechanism. What is NAT-PT?
A. Network address translation?.ìCport translation; translates RFC 1918 addresses to public IPv4 addresses
B. Network address translation-protocol translation; translates between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Next address translation?.ìCport translation
D. Network addressable transparent-port translation; translates network addresses to ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What Cisco router configuration component does an implementer use to create a floating static route?
A. Primary interface
B. Administrative distance
C. Loopback
D. Description
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco proprietary protocol will be used in LAN switches to control multicast traffic at the data link layer within a LAN switch?
A. MAC filters
B. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP)
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
D. IGMP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A common response to an attack by this device can be either to send an alert or to take corrective action. What is this device?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Firewall
C. Intrusion-detection system (IDS)
D. Router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How many more bits does IPv6 use for addresses than IPv4?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
Which protocol will be used to exchange IP routes between autonomous systems?
A. eBGP
B. IGMP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What does the Cisco security architecture called SAFE stand for?
A. Security Architecture for Enterprise
B. Standard Assessment for Enterprise
C. Security Analysis for Enterprise
D. Standard Architecture for Enterprise

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You are a network technician, can you tell me how many IP addresses are available for hosts in the subnet 198.10.100.64/27?
A. 62
B. 30
C. 126
D. 14

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which two encryption transforms will be used by both ESP and AH for authentication?
A. HMAC-MD5 or Hash Message Authentication Code-Secure Hash Algorithm-1(HMAC-SHA-1)
B. DES or 3DES
C. DES or Hash Message Authentication Code-Message Digest 5 (HMAC-MD5)
D. 3DES or MD5

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
For the following options, which emerging WAN technology uses DSL coding and digital modulation techniques with Ethernet?
A. Cable
B. Wireless
C. SMDS
D. Long-Reach Ethernet (LRE)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
What is SLC?
A. Standard level contracts
B. Standard level configuration
C. Service level contracts
D. Service level configuration

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What does ODR stand for?
A. Open default routing
B. Optical demand routing
C. Open dedicated routing
D. On-demand routing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Observe the following options, in which section of the network document does Cisco recommend a discussion of performance, scalability, capacity, security, and traffic needs?
A. Design summary
B. Design solution
C. Executive summary
D. Design requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In telephony, the local loop is the physical link or circuit. Where is the local loop located?
A. Between the loopback interfaces of two VoIP routers
B. Between phones and the central office (CO) switch
C. Between two PBXs
D. Between two PSTN switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which advantage is of security systems that are part of the Cisco ecosystem?
A. There is a suite of products to choose from.
B. Various partners as well as supporting products increase the effectiveness of security systems.
C. There are no advantages.
D. The Cisco ecosystem ensure that partners can implement the solution.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
What is ASBR short for?
A. Area Border Router
B. Auxiliary System Border Router
C. Area System Border Router
D. Autonomous System Boundary Router
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23

Area Border Router (ABR) is defined by which protocol?
A. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
B. OSPF
C. On-Demand Routing (ODR)
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which queuing mechanism establishes four interface output queues that will be used for traffic scheduling?
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. First-in, first-out (FIFO)
C. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. Custom queuing (CQ)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which option is not valid for using the public Internet as a backup WAN medium?
A. IP Security (IPSec) tunnels
B. Shared PVC
C. IP routing without constraints
D. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnels
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
For the following items, which is an SP Edge module in the Enterprise Composite Network model?
A. Core layer
B. Edge distribution
C. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) service
D. Server farm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which method will be used to secure a network against man-in-the-middle attack?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Management module
C. Encryption
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
What is important for the top-down design concept?
A. Engagement of the HR representatives during the design process
B. Engagement of the top executives during the design process
C. Engagement of the employees working on the top floors in the building during the design process
D. Engagement of the top executives once the design process is finalized
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which one of the following QoS mechanisms is recommended for VoIP networks?
A. Low-latency queuing (LLQ)
B. Switched-based queuing
C. Fast queuing
D. Custom queuing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
In which layer of the OSI model does Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) operate ?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Transport
D. Session

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Developing a network design according to layers such as core and distribution is an example of which type of design methodology?
A. Flat design
B. Top-down
C. Hierarchical structured design
D. PDIOO

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
Which parameters does the computation of the EIGRP composite metric use by default?
A. Bandwidth and reliability
B. Bandwidth and load
C. Bandwidth and maximum transmission unit (MTU)
D. Bandwidth and delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
Which statement is true about WANs?
A. Switches or concentrators often relay information through the WAN.
B. WANs typically encompass broad geographic areas.
C. In general, WAN technologies function at the middle three layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
D. Users of WANs do not typically own all transmission facilities.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which item is not a true disadvantage of the full-mesh topology?
A. Central hub router represents a single point of failure in the network.
B. High level of complexity to implement.
C. Large number of packet replications required.
D. High costs due to number of virtual circuits.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which IPv4 field are the precedence bits located in?
A. IP destination address
B. Type-of-service field
C. IP options field
D. IP protocol field
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which hierarchical layer has functions such as High availability, port security, and rate limiting?
A. Core
B. Access
C. Network
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
With which of the following capabilities does RIPv2 improve RIPv1?
A. Multicast updates, authentication, variable-length subnet mask (VLSM)
B. Authentication, VLSM, hop count
C. Multicast updates, authentication, hop count
D. Multicast updates, hop count
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)?
A. 285 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 500 feet
D. 100 meters
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which term accurately describes a specific measure of delay often used to describe voice and video networks?
A. Jitter
B. Flux
C. Latency
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40

Which layer is in charge of fast transport in the hierarchical network model?
A. Network
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Core
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
SNMP is short for Simple Network Management Protocol. Which version or versions of SNMP specify security extensions as part of the protocol definition?
A. SNMPv2
B. SNMPv4
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv1

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
What is the reason for switching preferred on shared segments?
A. Switched segments provide a collision domain for each host.
B. Switched segments provide a broadcast domain for each host
C. Shared segments provide a broadcast domain for each host.
D. Shared segments provide a collision domain for each host.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
Study the following options carefully. The corporate Internet is part of which functional area?
A. Enterprise Edge
B. Enterprise Campus
C. Service Provider (SP) Edge
D. Enterprise

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
Which H.323 protocol is in charge of call setup and signaling?
A. RTCP
B. H.245
C. G.711
D. H.225

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
A. Every 90 seconds.
B. Every 30 seconds.
C. Every 60 seconds.
D. RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically. Correct Answer: B

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