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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 143

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70-534 dumps

6. To access a remote server, configure:
A. Server source-nat
B. Source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
C. Server source-ip and source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
D. Server source-ip for the remotes subnet
70-534 exam Answer: C
7. If the real servers are directly connected to the ServerIron, the ServerIron replaces the:
A. Source IP address with the real servers address
B. Destination IP address with the real servers address
C. Source address with the ServerIrons server source-ip address
D. Source and destination addresses with the ServerIrons server source-ip and the real servers IP
Answer: B
8. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real
1)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP
b.Source translate the clients IP address
2)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
3)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged
b.Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address
4)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-534 dumps Answer: B
9. What ServerIron functionality allows a client to connect to the same server to which it previously
established an SSL connection? (Select all that apply)
A. sticky
B. SSL session ID switching
C. cookie switching
D. HTTP header hashing
Answer: AB
10. The Foundry ServerIron uses predictors to determine how to load balance the traffic flow. Which of the
following is not a valid predictor?
A. Least Connections
B. Round Robin
C. Least port priority
D. Response Time/Least Connections
70-534 pdf Answer: C
11. What best describes the role that the Virtual IP (VIP) Address plays in SLB?
A. The Virtual IP maps multiple logical addresses to one physical port number, B.
The Virtual IP address maps one logical address to multiple physical servers C.
The Virtual IP responds to ARPs with the real servers IP address
D. The Virtual IP maps ARPs with the real servers IP cache table.
Answer: B
12. What is the well-known name for port 80?
70-534 vce Answer: A
13. Performing Health Check on remote servers requires a source IP address that is not related to std
A. True B.
Answer: A
14. Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted

C. least connections
D. delay
70-534 exam Answer: B
15. What is the correct Foundry CLI command syntax for Layer 7 health check to a specific URL ?
A. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# port http url “GET/sales.html”
B. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# url “/sales.html
C. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# http url “PUT/sales.html
D. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# L7 healthcheck url “/sales.html”
Answer: A
16. What is the Foundry CLI command “ip tcp burst” used for?
A. Protect against TCP SYN attacks.
B. Enable tcp bursts
C. Flood TCP SYN
D. None of the above
70-534 dumps Answer: A
17. What is the default settings for Layer 2 Health Checks on the ServerIron XL product family?
A. 4 sec
B. 20 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 40 sec
Answer: B
18. Using source-nat causes the ServerIron to replace the:
A. Destination address with the source address
B. Real servers source address with the server source-ip
C. Source address with the ServerIrons management address
D. Source and destination addresses with the server source-ip address and the real server.
70-534 pdf Answer: D
19. What must an administrator configure to ensure that all requests for multiple ports from one client
goes to the same server?
A. The “Primary Port” application grouping parameter
B. The “Sticky connections” application grouping parameter
C. The “Concurrent Connections” application grouping parameter
D. The ” Master Port” application grouping parameter
Answer: C
20. Using Direct Server Return (DSR) allows the ServerIron to:
A. Double the number of sessions
B. Dynamically switch from server to server
C. Switch the connection back to a recovered server without dropping the connection
D. Establish a connection to the client establishing a connection to the server.
70-534 vce Answer: A
21.Which statement is TRUE about field-level security? Choose 2 answers
A. It is specified for each profile.
B. It can be controlled at the record level.
C. It Is enforced in the SOAP API.
D. It determines the values displayed in a visible picklist field.
Correct Answer: AB
22.If a change is made to an approval process, how can a developer determine the user that made the
change? Choose 2 answers
A. By examining the setup audit trail
B. By checking the field history on the associated record
C. By looking at “Modified By” on the approval definition
D. By examining the Debug Log
70-534 exam Correct Answer: C
23.What is NOT a component of a custom Force.com application?
A. Data warehouse
B. Custom object
C. Custom tab
D. Default landing tab
Correct Answer: A
24.In a recruiting application, a custom object called Position requires approval. When a position record is
submitted for approval, the requirements below must be met:
The hiring manager must approve the record
The approval must be forwarded to all members of the executive team, but only one executive needs to
approve the record
The VP of human resources must approve the record
How would a developer meet this requirement?
A. Create multiple approval processes, one for each executive team member, and utilize parallel sub
B. Create an approval process which utilizes parallel approvers, but does not require unanimous ap
C. Create parallel workflow rules, requiring at least one executive team member to complete their as
signed task.
D. Create an approval process with a step for each executive team member, allowing approval steps to be
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: B
25.Which standard profile has the “View Encrypted Data” permission by default?
A. System Administrator Profile
B. Solution Manager Profile

C. Standard User Profile
D. No profile has the permission active by default
Correct Answer: A

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